NEET PG & INI-CET - Clinical Sciences (Medicine, Surgery, OBGY & Specialties)

Trauma, Abdominal Surgery & Oncology question bank (General Surgery & Orthopedics)

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Q1.
Clinical Scenario #2: A 32-year-old G2P1 at 34 weeks gestation presents with BP 164/110 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, severe headache, and epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate diagnosis and immediate management strategy?

(A)
HELLP syndrome requiring immediate emergency hysterotomy without seizure prophylaxis
(B)
Chronic hypertension with superimposed nephrolithiasis; administer IV furosemide
(C)
Preeclampsia with severe features; initiate IV magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and labetalol
(D)
Gestational hypertension; discharge with oral methyldopa and outpatient weekly follow-up
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Q2.
Clinical Scenario #4: A 60-year-old male presents with crushing retrosternal chest pain radiating to the left arm. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate diagnosis and immediate management strategy?

(A)
Acute inferior wall myocardial infarction involving the Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
(B)
Anterior wall STEMI involving the Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery
(C)
Acute pericarditis with widespread PR segment elevation
(D)
Lateral wall STEMI involving the Left Circumflex (LCx) artery
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